完型

PART II CLOZE [15 MIN.]

Direction: Decide which of the choices below would correctly complete the passage if inserted in the corresponding blanks. Mark the correct choice for each blank in your answer sheet.

The worldwide consumption of bakery products is increasing. Many populations that formerly relied 26)______ on rice or coarser grains as their main source of carbohydrates show a 27)______ for compounded bakery products as new industry and increased incomes make them more widely 28)______ Japan is an outstanding example of countries following this 29)______. The United States has shown a steady downward trend in 30)______ consumption of cereal-based foods for many years, and the consumption of sweet bakery foods, 31)______ cakes or pastry, has been increasingly displacing bread consumption.

Probably 95% of the white bread sold in the United States is 32)______ with thiamine, niacin, riboflavin, and iron, and about 30 of the 50 states have laws 33)______ white bread enrichment. Formerly, calcium and vitamin D were frequently added to enrich bread, but lack of consumer demand and 34)______ nutritional benefit led to gradual phrasing out of these enrichments. India has 35)______ to encourage consumption of protein-enriched bread, 36)______ some success. Except for research projects, little has been done in other countries, 37)______. In areas where bakery products comprise a large 38)______ of the diet, they could provide ideal vehicle for nutritional supplementation. The need for better quality protein in the daily diet occurs 39)______ in the developing countries, where carbohydrate foods -- usually cereals -- are the basic 40)______ of the diet and therefore the logical protein carries.

26. A. partly B. partially C. solely D. somewhat
27. A. preference B. tendency C. interest D. likeness
28. A. used B. acknowledged C. accessible D. possessable
29. A. increase B. trend C. change D. example
30. A. per head B. per capita C. each person D. percentage
31. A. either B. neither C. such as D. for example
32. A. rich B. enriched C. plentiful D. full
33. A. requesting B. requiring C. to require D. to request
34. A. doubtful B. uncertain C. questionable D. unsteady
35. A. intended B. wanted C. supposed D. attempted
36. A. reaching B. making C. made D. with
37. A. however B. still C. yet D. by now
38. A. amount B. number C. scale D. proportion
39. A. often B. always C. mostly D. most
40. A. components B. composition C. compounds D. ingredient

词汇和语法

PART III GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY [15 MIN.]

There are twenty-five sentences in this section. Beneath each sentence there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose one word or phrase that correctly completes the sentence.

41. A good harvest was obtained ______ the worse drought in sixty years.
A. though
B. despite
C. because of
D. even

42. They told me that Professor Liu ______ here for twenty years by this winter.
A. had taught
B. had been teaching
C. would be teaching
D. would have been teaching

43. The Chinese are ______ great people.
A. a
B. the
C. some
D. /

44. His wife and secretary ______ also ______.
A. has.. invited
B. have.. invited
C. is... invited
D. are.. invited

45. Their income increased ______ 21% over that of the previous year.
A. at
B. with
C. by
D. to

46. We've produced ______ this year ______ we did ten years ago.
A. twice more cotton.., than
B. twice as much cotton.., than
C. twice the cotton.., as
D. twice as much cotton.., as

47. They exchanged views on the question ______.
A. of whom selected
B. to select whom
C. of whom to select
D. of whom being selected

48. The man was questioned by the police because he was seen ______ around the bank.
A. wander
B. to wander
C. wandering
D. wandered

49. John was ______ to be found. I looked ______ for him, but in vain.
A. anywhere.., nowhere
B. somewhere.., nowhere
C. nowhere.., anywhere
D. nowhere.., everywhere

50. He phrased the matter in ______ that there would be no understanding of it.
A. this way
B. that way
C. such a way
D. such way

51. She was all alone in the world ______ an old aunt.
A. except
B. except for
C. but
D. only

52. The mechanical engineer has resigned, making the task ______.
A. all the more difficult
B. all more difficult
C. very more difficult
D. the more difficult

53. You are planning everything on the ______ that he is coming with us.
A. consumption
B. resumption
C. assumption
D. observation

54. The trial is to be ______ while new evidence is being considered.
A. suspended
B. continued
C. resumed
D. ended

55. The child has a bad habit of chewing his nails ______.
A. consciously
B. unconsciously
C. disconsciously
D. conscientiously

56. In order to study for a degree in America, he had to become ______ in English.
A. proficient
B. prominent
C. familiar
D. experienced

57. French wines no longer ______ the wine trade of the USA. American wines have taken their places.
A. command
B. dominate
C. hold
D. occupy

58. The sun soon ______ the mist.
A. scattered
B. discharged
C. discarded
D. dispelled

59. Your reasons for not wanting to meet Smith may be many and ______, but you must still meet him.
A. variable
B. various
C. varied
D. variant

60. He was so ______ in his work that he completely forgot the time.
A. engrossed
B. attracted
C. intent
D. concentrated

61. He was not ______ as a great writer until after his death.
A. considered
B. supposed
C. recognized
D. acknowledged

62. We want to ______ our thinking and work to the new circumstances.
A. adopt
B. adapt
C. renovate
D. innovate

63. A lot of poisonous ______ from the chemical works goes into the river.
A. waste
B. exhaust
C. exhaustion
D. pollution

64. He has put a little money ______ and intends to take a holiday.
A. away
B. forward
C. down
D. aside

65. Marsha got so ______ when arguing with her husband that she killed him.
A. carried out
B. carried on
C. carried over
D. carried away

阅读A
PART V READING COMPREHENSION [25 MIN]

In this section there are four passages followed by questions or unfinished statements, each with four suggested answers marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that you think is the best answer.

Mark your answers on your answer sheet.

TEXT A
The Netherlands borders Germany to the east, Belgium to the south, and the North sea to the north and west. The landscape is extremely flat. There are a few hills in the southeast corner of the country. Water is everywhere -- lakes, rivers, and canals, of many types, ranging from the large transport arteries for barge traffic to the narrow drainage ditches that crisscross the fields where Holland's five million cows graze, making fences unnecessary.

Land is very precious in the Netherlands. The special relationship between the Dutch and their lands, which they have so painstakingly reclaimed from the sea or converted from swamp, has shaped their character. The history has been a constant struggle to tame the natural forces of water, and they love the saying that "God made the world, but the Dutch made Holland themselves." Hardly any patch of ground is wasted in the Netherlands. The extreme care in land use can be frustrating to people who would like to build their own house, but it is also the reason why the second most crowded country in the world (after Bangladesh) can be a net exporter of food. In fact only the Americans export more food than the Dutch. Each of the Netherlands' three largest cities is a capital in its own way and each has its own special flavour. Amsterdam is the social and cultural centre, and its theatres, concert halls, museums and cafes are famous. It is full of visitors from many other countries. Rotterdam, with its huge international port, is the industrial centre and the country's commercial capital. Bombs flattened much of Rotterdam in the Second World War, so that its modern buildings contrast sharply with the 17-century centre of Amsterdam. The Hague is the seat of government and diplomacy and the residence of the Queen.

66. ______ make fences unnecessary in keeping the cows.
A. lakes and rivers
B. the large transport arteries for barge traffic
C. the narrow drainage ditches that crisscross the fields
D. all of the above

67. Holland can be a net exporter of food, mainly because ______
A. the soil in the Netherlands is very rich and productive.
B. the Dutch are very good at planting grains.
C. the Dutch have most advanced machines that help planting.
D. the Dutch value every inch of the ground and make full use of it.

68. If a president of a certain country wants to meet the leader of Holland, he should go to ______
A. Amsterdam.
B. Rotterdam.
C. Hague.
D. Utrecht.

69. Holland is a(n) ______
A. a republic.
B. an empire.
C. a monarchy.
D. not mentioned.

TEXT B
The American cigarette companies are worried that the antismoking campaign is catching fire and the U.S. government may issue stronger regulations concerning the use of tobacco.

Many government and private buildings have "No Smoking" regulations, as do airplanes, trains and massage parlors. Golf courses are thinking of banning smokers, as are schools, shopping malls and even football buddies.

So where do people go to fill their lungs with nicotine? The government is working on it. One suggestion making the rounds is that the government set aside a piece of land somewhere in the United States where smokers could go when they want a cigarette. Yellow Stone Park has been mentioned, but conservationists have opposed the idea because they fear that second-hand smoking would make all the grizzly bears sick. The Mojave Desert in California is also being studied, as are Las Vegas Casinos.

The smokers are not too thrilled about the government idea. They say they are not going to Nebraska just to light up. They have a right to smoke at home. To make life more pleasant for those who would be going to the smoking "reservation", the government is seriously thinking of getting the Army Corps of Engineers to build gambling casinos.

The officials in the government say they realize that they are inconveniencing people by making them go so far away to blow smoke rings. But it had to come to this or ban smoking in the entire country. Once everyone gets used to the idea, all will be better off.

The tobacco companies are fighting the idea like mad. They say nobody has proved conclusively that cigarettes are bad for you. They say as a matter of fact, the doctors have proved that a cigarette inhaled after someone has been shot can save that person's life.

Other sites still being considered are the Tundra in Alaska, the Rocky Mountain Arsenal in Colorado and the Whitewater River in Arkansas.

70. Before the anti-smoking campaign is catching fire, there were ______ concerning the use of tobacco in the U. S. A.
A. no regulations
B. some regulations but not severe ones
C. severe regulations
D. not mentioned in the passage

71. A smoker can't smoke absolutely in ______
A. all the government buildings.
B. trains.
C. golf courses.
D. shopping malls.

72. Which place is least likely to be reservations for smokers?
A. The Mojave Desert.
B. The Tundra.
C. Yellow Stone Park.
D. The Whitewater River.

73. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
A. Antismoking campaign puts pressure on government in restricting tobacco.
B. Smokers have to go to Nebraska only if they want to blow smoke rings.
C. Casinos are built by the Army Corps of Engineers.
D. The officials realize they are inconveniencing smokers, so they will stop banning smoking.

阅读C

TEXT C
Nowadays more and more foreign enterprises and companies are no longer relying on interviews for recruitment. Years of studying interviewing has made clear that it is not a very objective process. Personnel officers often hire the person they like best, or even the one they think most physically attractive. Looking good is no guarantee of doing the job well, however. Uglies or those who are aesthetically challenged, take heart.

To get a more objective view, many companies are also using psychological tests to hire both for relatively routine jobs and for positions at senior levels of management. It is impossible to say how many employers use tests, but estimates of test sales in the UK for 1993 were over 1 million.

The basic reason employers use tests is clear: tests claim to be scientific and objective. A large body of research has shown that interviews by themselves are not very reliable as a method of selection. People's judgment are often very subjective: whether they like the look of someone counts for more than almost anything else. But reliable and valid tests can offer rapid and more objective information about would-be employees. If a candidate talks well in an interview but his test results suggest that he is a careless person who can not concentrate, an employer is likely to think twice about hiring him.

Taking a serious test for a job is rather different from taking a game-like test. You can spend just a little time in answering questions of that kind of test, and you deny the answers and say they are not accurate. But you can not go to a serious test without enough preparation since you can not afford to be denied and eliminated again and again.

74. In the past, who would be sure to be recruited after an interview?
A. The person who was good-looking.
B. The person who had great abilities.
C. The person who is physically attractive.
D. The person who is appreciated by personnel officer in a certain aspect.

75. Many companies use psychological tests ______
A. to take the place of interviews.
B. just to select common clerks.
C. to make the recruitment more difficult for candidates.
D. to get really reliable and fair information about candidates.

76. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
A. For a certain time, psychological tests and interviews will exist together.
B. Psychological tests have been recognized valuable more and more.
C. The employer will never hire a person who does well in the interview but poorly in the psychological tests.
D. People seldom attend a test without enough preparation unless they are confident in it.

阅读D

TEXT D
In 1990 over 50 percent of children under the age of five were attending school; in 1966 the figure was only 15 percent. However, thanks to a falling birth rate, school enrolls continue to fall. In 1979/80,43 percent of schools had over 1,000 pupils; a decade later only 22 percent exceeded this figure.

Independent schools attracted 7 percent of all pupils in Great Britain in 1990 -- a 2 percent increase since 1976.

The National Curriculum for 5-16 year-olds was introduced to state schools in autumn 1989. Of the ten foundation subjects it recommends, English, maths and science are core subjects. Formal assessments of individual abilities are made at the age of 7, 11,14,and 16. The first assessments took place in 1991. Seven-year-olds were tested in English, science and maths and the results made available to parents only. The first tests for 14-year-olds take place in 1992 and the results, unlike those for the first Key Stage, were published in aggregate form.

The Technical and Vocational Education Initiative (TVEI) is a program designed to help 14-18-year-olds develop the skills and knowledge required in the labour force. The course offers the opportunity of practical work experience with a Record of Achievement and Careers guidance at the end of it.

The Compact inner-city initiative, launched in 1988, is another scheme designed to bring pupils, schools, employers and training organizations together. By 1991 there were 500 schools and 92,000 young people involved with their local compact. City Technology Colleges (CTCs) are non-fee-paying schools in urban areas. Their broad-based curriculum emphasized science and technology. By the end of 1991, there were 12 CTCs around Britain.

Higher education. Since 1970 there have consistently been more females than males involved in full-time higher education. Between 1980 and 1990 there was an overall increase of 30 percent in the number of students, mostly at polytechnics and colleges rather than universities. During the same period the number of mature students (those aged 21 and over when starting an undergraduate course and 25 and over when starting a postgraduate course) increased by 55 percent.

77. In 1990, ______ had more than one thousand pupils.
A. 15% of all the schools in UK
B. 22% of all the schools in UK
C. 43% of all the schools in UK
D. 50% of all the schools in UK

78. Which is the true statement about the first assessments?
A. They took place two years before the National Curriculum was put to use.
B. Seven-year-olds were tested only in core subjects.
C. Seven-year-olds were uninformed of the results.
D. Seven-year-olds should take science test.

79. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
A. In 1990 over 50 percent of children were attending school.
B. In 1976 public school attracted 95~ of all pupils in UK.
C. In TVE1 students only study theories without testifying them in practice.
D. Before 1970,there should have been more males than females involved in full-time higher education.

80. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. The average age of students attending the first period of education has been changed from 7 to 6.
B. There are more and more mature students now at colleges.
C. The general condition of the educational system in UK.
D. The best way for a child to attend school in order to achieve much more success.

作文

PART VI WRITING [45 MIN.]

SECTION A COMPOSITION [35 MIN.]

Write a composition of about 150 words on the following topic:

MY VIEW ON COLLEGE STUDENTS' PAYING THE TUITION FEE

You are to write in three parts.
In the first part, state clearly your viewpoint on this issue.
In the second part, give one or two reasons to support your point of view.
In the last part, bring what you have written to a natural conclusion.

Marks will be awarded for content, organization, grammar and appropriacy. Failure to follow these instructions may result in the loss of marks.

SECTION B NOTE-WRITING [10 MIN.]

Write a note of about 50-60 words based on the following situation:

It's Sunday afternoon. Your hostess is out. And you decide to go to a nearby town. You will miss your evening meal. Write a note to the hostess explaining this and anything else which is important.

Marks will be awarded for content, organization, grammar and appropriacy.